Just say you're a goy. You obviously did not understand my implication of Jewish perversion/popularization of perversion. Also, the Bible is not Jewish if your claim is simply, "They wrote the Old Testament." John 4:22 does not use the term "Jew" in its original writing. The English word "Jew" is a misleading translation of the Greek word "Ἰουδαίων." The term "Ἰουδαίων" (of Judeans) has the same relation to "Ἰουδαία" (Judea), just as the Greek term "Ἀθηναίων" (of Athenians) has the same relation to Athens. Both of these terms define a group of people tied to their place of origin, God/gods, central place of worship, etc. In the Latin Vulgate, John 4:22 states, "salus ex Iudaeis est" (salvation is from the Judeans). "ex Iudaeis est" is the same phrase as the Greek phrase "ἐκ τῶν Ἰουδαίων," which translates in English to "salvation is from the Judeans." The word "Jew," as it is typically understood in the present day, denotes someone whose mother is Jewish, or a practitioner of modern Judaism, which is vastly different from roughly 2000 years ago. In the modern day, Jews follow the Talmud, participate in Kabbalah, etc. These things distinguish them from the Judeans of Christ's time, and the danger of an uneducated person conflating these terms is grave. We see this throughout Protestant denominations (specifically the ones that are Christian Zionists) and their worship of the Jews and sending money to Israel.